Questions For Jehovah's Witnesses

Questions For Jehovah's Witnesses

These questions have been read by thousands of Jehovah's Witnesses, but not a single one has tried to answer them! Jehovah's Witnesses, please do not be unfair and expect others to always answer your questions, but never do the same in return. Please do the research for yourself and reply back, so these questions can finally be answered and updated.

ANY JW WHO CAN ANSWER THESE WILL RECEIVE $5000 REWARD!

How do you explain the direct correlation between Hebrews 1:10-12 and Psalms 102:25-27? They both say the same thing almost word-for-word and there are even cross references in your Bible linking them together. In Hebrews, it is about Jesus, but in Psalms it is about Jehovah.

In your Bible, you have a section of John 8:58 translated as "I have been" when it should have been translated "I am". Why would the Jews have tried stoning him after he simply said "I have been"? Jesus had just got done saying that they were not from God and were also liars, but yet they didn't want to stone him. Why wasn't it until only after he said "I have been" did they want to stone him?

According to Isaiah 9:6, Jesus is called 'Mighty God'. The Watchtower teaches that Jesus is rightly called 'Mighty God', but this doesn't mean he is 'Almighty God'. Since this is the case, how do you explain Jehovah being called 'Mighty God' just a single chapter later in Isaiah 10:21? Using consistent logic, wouldn't this mean that Jehovah is not Almighty God then?

According to the Bible, Jesus is 'God' with a big 'G' (Isaiah 9:6, John 20:28, etc). The Watchtower teaches that Jesus is 'a God' or 'a separate God', but not God himself. Doesn't this directly contradict multiple scriptures such as Isaiah 44:6, Isaiah 44:8, Isaiah 45:21-22, and so on?

Thomas called Jesus 'God' with a big 'G' at John 20:28. Jesus not only failed to correct Thomas, but he actually confirmed that Thomas was correct. How can this be, if Jesus is not God?

When was Jehovah ever valued at 30 silver pieces as stated in Zechariah 11:12-13? And why does your Bible have a cross reference pointing to the New Testament which is about how Jesus was betrayed for 30 silver pieces?

We are told many times in the Bible that God resurrected Jesus. See Acts 2:24, Acts 2:32, Acts 3:15, Acts 3:26, Acts 4:10, Acts 5:30, Acts 10:40, Acts 13:30-37, Romans 4:24, Romans 6:4, Romans 10:9, 1 Corinthians 6:14, Galations 1:1, Ephesians 1:17-20, Colossians 2:12, and 1 Peter 1:21. However, Jesus told the Jews that if they destroyed this temple that HE would raise it again in 3 days (John 2:19-21). The Bible clearly defines what Jesus meant by saying the ‘temple’ meant his BODY. So if Jesus raised his own body and the Bible clearly says that God raised Jesus, then who would Jesus be then? Also, what does this mean for your teachings that Jesus ceased to exist and needed recreated?

According to John 12:41, John says Isaiah saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him. The New World Translation has a cross reference pointing back to Isaiah 6:1,8. There, Isaiah saw Jehovah and spoke about him. There is even a cross reference pointing to John 12:41. So the Watchtower agrees that these scriptures are related. How can both passages of scripture be true unless Jesus is Jehovah?

How do you explain both Jehovah and Jesus being called by the same titles (eg. 'Lord of Lords', 'Savior', 'Mighty God', 'First and the Last', 'King of Israel', 'Rock', 'Light', 'Almighty', 'Alpha and Omega', and 'Shepherd')?

In your Kingdom Interlinear Translation of John 14:14, it shows the word 'me' in the original text that is missing. A word for word literal translation would be something like, "if ever anything you should ask me in the name of me, this shall I do." So if translated correctly, it means we can pray to Jesus himself in his name. If we can pray to Jesus himself in his own name, who does that make Jesus?

Stephen prayed to Jesus in Acts 7:59. Your translation diluted the meaning of the text for obvious reasons. However, we know it means prayer because the Watch Tower admitted this in their 1950 version of Acts 7:59. Also, common sense tells us that it is a prayer since Jesus was nowhere near Stephen during his death and he said 'receive my spirit'. If Jesus can be prayed to, who does this mean he is then?

According to Revelation 5:13-14, 'the One' (God the Father) and the Lamb (Jesus) are both worshipped at the same time. The Bible is clear that only the one true God may be worshipped. How then can the Lamb (Jesus) be worshipped if he is not God?

According to Revelation 1:7-8, Jesus is called the Alpha and Omega, Jehovah God, and the Almighty. We know it is Jesus because in verse 7 it says he was pierced. Jesus was the one that was pierced. Also, it says "he is coming" which means the one who was pierced (Jesus) is coming. Then in verse 8 it says Jehovah is coming. So the text is about the same subject (Jesus/Jehovah) who is coming. This can easily be proven by comparing to Revelation 22:13. Notice how the entire context around Revelation 22:13 is about Jesus. Jesus here identifies himself as the 'Alpha and Omega'. So how do you explain this? Are Jehovah and Jesus both coming and are both 'Alpha and Omega'?

The Jews picked up stones to kill Jesus because of blasphemy (John 10:30-33). Who was Jesus claiming to be that caused such a reaction? If he was claiming to be a false little 'g' god, as the NWT renders it, how could he even be blaspheming?

According to 1 Timothy 3:16, 'He' was made manifest in the flesh. By considering verse 15, we can see that God is the subject immediately prior to verse 16. So it would make sense that verse 16 is referring to God. The WatchTower has even admitted that this was referring to God who was made manifest in the flesh (eg. Watchtower July 1879, Watchtower June 1880. There are also other manuscripts that actually contain the word 'God' in verse 16. Therefore, do you agree that God was made manifest in the flesh? If so, who would this make Jesus Christ?

According to Luke 1:15-17, John the Baptizer came ahead of Jehovah to get the people prepared for him. Even the prophecy about John the Baptizer in Isaiah confirms this. Why is it then that John himself said that he came to prepare the way for Jesus (John 1:15-27)?

According to Revelation 22:6, Jehovah sent his angel. However, several verses later in the same chapter at Revelation 22:16, it says Jesus sent his angel. How can this be true unless Jesus is Jehovah?

If Jesus became Michael the Archangel after his death as a human, why is he still referred to as Jesus from Acts onward?

If Jesus became Michael the Archangel after his death as a human, did Jesus lie when he said in Revelation 22:16 that his name is Jesus?

If Jesus is now Michael the Archangel, why is it that you pray to God in the name of Jesus and not in the name of Michael?

Since you believe the man Jesus ceased to exist and he became Michael the Archangel, wouldn't you be in an unsaved condition since the Bible clearly says there is no name other than Jesus by which we must be saved (Acts 4:12)?

If Jesus is Michael the Archangel, then wouldn't Jehovah also need to be an archangel in order for Hebrews 1:3 to be true?

If Jesus is Michael the Archangel, why did God command in Hebrews 1:6 that ALL the angels worship (do obeisance) him?

If Jesus is Michael the Archangel, why does Hebrews 1:13 say "about which of the angels..."?

If Jesus is Michael the Archangel, why does Hebrews 2:5 say that it is not to angels that God has subjected the Earth to come, but just a few verses later at Hebrews 2:8, it says that ALL THINGS have been subjected under Jesus?

If 1 Thessalonians 4:16 proves Jesus is Michael the Archangel simply because Jesus comes with the voice of an Archangel, doesn't this also mean he is a trumpet because he comes with God's trumpet?

If Jesus is Michael the Archangel, how could all things have been created for him and through him (Colossians 1:16)?

If Jehovah is a spirit who only lives in heaven and who cannot ever be seen, how is it possible for him to reside in Jerusalem later (Zechariah 2:10-11)?

If Jehovah is a spirit who only lives in heaven and who cannot ever be seen, how is it possible for him to stand on the Mount of Olives later (Zechariah 14:3-4)?

How do you explain the cross reference connecting Zechariah 14:3-4 which says Jehovah will come and stand on the Mount of Olives to Acts 1:12 which says Jesus is coming back to the Mount of Olives?

If the Holy Spirit is only Jehovah's active force, why does the Holy Spirit speak and use the pronouns "I" and "me" about himself in places like Acts 13:2 and Hebrews 3:7-11?

If the Holy Spirit is an impersonal active force, how can it be blasphemed (Matt. 12:31)? How can it be grieved (Eph. 4:30)? How can it have a will (1 Cor. 12:11)? How can it come to know something (1 Cor. 2:11)? How can it teach and cause someone to remember (John 14:26)? How can it tell someone what to do (Acts 8:29; 13:2)? How can it plead for us (Rom. 8:26)?

The Watchtower claims that the Holy Spirit is like electricity and fire and therefore not alive. Since this is the case, shouldn't you also believe that Jehovah is not alive since he is also a Spirit (John 4:24, 2 Corinthians 3:17) and he is described as "a consuming fire" (Heb. 12:29)?

In Acts 5:3-4, we can see that in verse 3 Ananias lied to the Holy Spirit but then in verse 4 it says Ananias lied to God. Ignoring the direct correlation between God and the Holy Spirit, if the Holy Spirit is not a person and is just God's active force, how can it even be lied to?

How do you explain the direct correlation made between the Holy Spirit and Jehovah made at Acts 28:25-27 and Isaiah 6:9-10? There is even a cross reference between the two passages in your own Bible. In Acts it says the Holy Spirit spoke, but in Isaiah it says Jehovah spoke.

How do you explain the direct correlation made between the Holy Spirit and Jehovah made at Hebrews 3:7-11 and Psalms 95:7-11? There are multiple footnotes between the two passages in the NWT. In Hebrews it says the Holy Spirit spoke, but in Psalms it says Jehovah spoke.

Why is blaspheming the Holy Spirit the only unforgivable sin according to the Bible (Mark 3:29)? We can blaspheme Jehovah and do all types of evil, but be forgiven. However, if we blaspheme an unliving thing similar to fire, we will never be forgiven, right?

Why does your Bible render the word 'proskuneo' as 'obeisance' in regards to Jesus (eg. Matthew 2:8,11), but as 'worship' in regards to Jehovah and even Satan (eg. Matthew 4:9-10)?

Why did your translators insert the word 'Son' at Acts 20:28 into the text even though it is nowhere to be found in the original text? Your original 1950 Version of Acts 20:28 included the word 'Son' in brackets, but your current 2013 Version of Acts 20:28 has no brackets or footnotes at all! If properly translated, this would mean God purchased with his OWN blood. Therefore, who would this mean Jesus Christ is?

Why did the translators of your Bible conveniently fail to insert the word 'Jehovah' in Philippians 2:11, Romans 10:9, and 1 Corinthians 12:3?

Why does JW artwork consistently show through all the years Jesus with a single nail through his wrist at the time of crucifixion? John 20:25 says that more than one nail was used for his hands.

How do you explain Revelation 3:21 and Revelation 22:1-4 where it says there is a single throne that belongs to both Jehovah and Jesus? Also, how do you explain the singular words 'his' and 'him' being used when both Jehovah and Jesus are the subject?

How do you explain Revelation 5:6 and Revelation 5:13-14 which shows that God, Jesus, and God's Spirit as all receiving the same exact worship at the same exact time?

Why do you make a big deal out of the invented name 'Jehovah' when your own organization admitted several times that nobody actually knows the true name of God?

Can you prove that Jehovah is more accurate than another speculation for God's name such as 'Jahoveh' or 'Jahevoh'? Wouldn't these be more accurate considering verses like Revelation 19:1,3,4,6?

Since Jehovah's Witnesses believe that you cannot truly know someone without knowing their name, doesn't this mean that you don't know your own God then since nobody knows the true name of God?

We all agree that God is all-powerful and all-knowing. How is it then that God allowed his name to be removed from all biblical manuscripts, making it impossible for people in our day to know his name, but we do know the name of Jesus and it is his name that is above EVERY name (Phil. 2:9) and there is no other name by which we must be saved (Acts 4:12)?

Why is it that you are called 'Jehovah's Witnesses' but Isaiah 62:2 says God would call his people by a new name (single name, not names) and that new name was already assigned in Acts 11:26?

Ignoring the deception, lies, and false prophecies of your organization, why is it that you are called 'Jehovah's Witnesses' if you do not even meet the basic criteria defined in the Bible at Isaiah 43:10-12 and Isaiah 44:8?

Why does Jehovah share his glory with Jesus (eg. John 17:5 & Revelation 5:12-13), but scripture is clear that Jehovah does not share his glory with anyone (eg. Isaiah 42:8 & Isaiah 48:11)?

How do you explain the 2 Jehovahs stated in Genesis 19:24? This was removed from your 2013 Bible, but is in prior versions. Jehovah made it rain sulfur and fire from Jehovah. Which means there are 2 Jehovahs. By reading the previous context this can be proven too. For example, Jehovah was physically standing before Abraham in Genesis 18:22. So the Jehovah that was on Earth called down fire from the Jehovah in heaven.

How do you explain the 2 Jehovahs at Isaiah 44:6?

How do you explain the 2 Gods at Amos 4:11?

If Jesus died on a torture stake with a single nail through both hands, why does John 20:25 say that NAILS were used for his hands?

If Jesus died on a torture stake with arms positioned vertically above his head, then why does Matthew 27:37 say that the sign was posted above his head and not posted above his hands or arms?

How do you explain the contradiction that seems to be present between John 19:17 and Matthew 27:32. In John, it says Jesus carried the torture stake himself as he went out to the place of the skull. However, in Matthew it says that they made Simon carry the torture stake as they went out to the place of the skull. If a cross was used and it was in 2 pieces (pole and cross beam) during transport, the scriptures would not be a contradiction, but how do you explain it?

By explaining away old false teachings as receiving "new light", it seems like the WatchTower is setting themselves up to never be wrong or accountable. What would prevent other false religions from using this same tactic to also justify their ever-changing false teachings? If this would happen, why would your religion be from God, but they would not?

If old false teachings can simply be explained away by receiving "new light", then it is theoretically possible that what you are teaching now may actually be false because in another 5 years or so there can be "new light" again. Since this is the case, wouldn't Jehovah be responsible for spreading false teaching?

If you are being saved by taking in accurate knowledge, how much knowledge must you take in to be saved? Where is the line drawn? How can this be measured?

If you are being saved by taking in accurate knowledge, what date did Jehovah's Witnesses first become eligible for salvation? Your teachings have been changing since day 1. For example, Jesus can be worshipped then Jesus cannot be worshipped. Jesus is not Michael the Archangel and now Jesus is Michael the Archangel. There is the changing generation definition, the ever-changing 1914 relevance, and so on. If Jehovah's Witnesses only now today have accurate knowledge and can therefore be saved, what happens to the hundreds of thousands of JWs who have died since the organization was founded?